So take your gas price and multiply by 4.35 *
This makes sense in the U.S. and the UK where an electric vehicle owner pays for the charge expressed in kWh but the road distances are expressed in miles.
It is an interesting British example of "split personality". The UK measures the volume of petrol in litres but uses road distances in miles. Milk or beer volume is expressed in British Pints (which are larger than the U.S. ones) but Coke or oat milk is sold by litres
I wonder why the brewery would not rather make it a standard Euro half a litre or 500 ml (1 U.S. pint and 0.90 U.S. fl. oz.) Yes, numerically, 1 Nm = 1 J (1 kg * m^2/s^2).
Real Coke in the glass bottles is sold by the ml. Corn syrup based Coke products are sold by the oz.
My memory might not serve me well. I was in Houston just before the FIFA World Cup. Bought several plastic Coke Zero bottles and am almost sure each of them was 1.75 litre. Perhaps it was because of no sugar content?
Because Volts are Joules/charge and Amperes are charge/secondThis makes sense in the U.S. and the UK where an electric vehicle owner pays for the charge expressed in kWh but the road distances are expressed in miles.
It is an interesting British example of "split personality". The UK measures the volume of petrol in litres but uses road distances in miles. Milk or beer volume is expressed in British Pints (which are larger than the U.S. ones) but Coke or oat milk is sold by litres
I could find a funny thing about the U.S. when I was in Houston this Summer. I could find some cans of U.S. made craft beer...
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The volume was expressed as "1 U.S. pint and 3.2 U.S. fl. oz". Would you guess what that volume actually was? Spoiler alert: I did the maths. It was exactly 1 British pint
Isn't Coke sold by litre in the U.S.?
Yes, numerically, 1 Nm = 1 J (1 kg * m^2/s^2).
The SI definition of Joule J is the amount of work done when a force of 1 N moves an object across the distance of 1 m in the direction of that force.
The SI definition of newton-metre Nm is the turning force (torque) generated when a force of 1 N is applied perpendicularly to the end of a moment arm (lever) that is 1 m long.
The fact the two units are equivalent does not mean these are of the same physical meaning. Figuratively speaking, an apple and a orange of the same mass are not the same, right?
It is the matter of the convention. To differentiate work and torque, different units are being used.
Now. @Mr. Coffee please ask yourself this question: How come Watt W is a J/s and a V*A at the same time. Or, use the AI for the answer
Boy, if witches can change their weight at will, bet they get a lot of applicants.
syrup
??
? is different cuz tablespoons are different in Merika,..
Not really. Volt is defined as the electromotive force that dissipates 1 Watt of power at a current of 1 Ampere. So the V is defined by the well defined W = J/s and A (which is an arbitrary value).
Think of Pascals Pa. 1 atm = 101325 Pa.
Hey, I didn't make this s*it up.Is that Fluid Ounces or are you talking about how much your Coke weighs ??
How many fluid ounces are there in an ounce of
There's 16 ounces in a pound, but there's 160 ounces in a gallon
So how big is a metric
Even cooking
Amperes are defined as one coulomb of charge per second. A coulomb is about 6.24e+18 electron charges. So the coulombs cancel out and you end up with watts.
